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[HELP!!!] Calc test!!!

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    #31
    fuck, I wish I remembered all this shit. It was about a year ago and I cant remember anything now, lol. I love math, I was just too lazy to do my hw or go to class.

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      #32
      well the lim goes to 0/0 which implies there is a limit. If it was N/0, the answer would be DNE, where N can be any number. I tried to apply Lopital's Rule but that does not help. However this problem is kinda weird because it depends on how you move along the number line. As you approach 0, the limit DNE, because of a vertical tangent. You can verify this because ln(0) DNE either. When you approach infiniti, then the value becomes 0. You can verify this graphically.
      Yeah, Preludes

      Originally posted by deevergote.
      Why can't people just search OT to see if someone else posted the same random thread?

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        #33
        Originally posted by wed3k
        Originally posted by AccordWarrior
        http://integrals.wolfram.com/index.jsp

        I lived off that in college math.

        Searching Google is key...and that's why I'm a semester away from being an engimaneer, it's my research skills.
        ho-lee-shit
        x2. THIS IS A GODSEND. That is amazing. AccordWarrior FTW

        BTW, Calc =


        Originally posted by Maple50175
        Oh here we go again. Maples other half.

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          #34
          oh yea, I guess try to use lim h->0 when (f(x+h)-f(x))/h...Your problem is very similiar if you think about it...because the top is very similar and the bottom is just like (x+h)-x, which simplifies to h. Btw, this is the fundamental theorem of calculus

          also, it will help if u think of h as a very small number...like .00000001
          Last edited by kmart64; 02-07-2007, 10:33 PM.
          Yeah, Preludes

          Originally posted by deevergote.
          Why can't people just search OT to see if someone else posted the same random thread?

          Comment


            #35
            This is for the first one:
            use

            ln (x) = y <----> e^y = x

            so,

            ( ln(t) - ln(b) ) / (t -b)

            becomes

            e ^( ln(t) - ln(b) )
            __________________
            e^(t-b)

            which is

            t-b
            _____

            e^(t-b)

            now as t approaches b

            b-b
            ________
            e^(b-b)

            equals:

            0
            ____
            e^0

            equals:

            0
            __
            1

            answer is 0

            atleast thats what i got
            Last edited by MRX; 02-07-2007, 10:50 PM.
            Knowledge is power...in EVERY sense of the word

            FSAE (F Series Accord Enthusiasts) ..."A dying breed thats taking it to the next level" #12

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              #36
              Originally posted by AccordWarrior
              http://integrals.wolfram.com/index.jsp

              I lived off that in college math.

              Searching Google is key...and that's why I'm a semester away from being an engimaneer, it's my research skills.
              My god it integrates for you! Now if I could only find a way to incorporate this into my next test.
              Gary A.K.A. Carter
              [sig killed by photobucket]

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                #37
                Differentiation is easy compared to integration. When you wanna check your answer, it takes as long as it took you to integrate the equation to differentiate it. HUH! Like y= xsin[x+1]-6ln[2x]-cosx. It is way easier and faster to diff. that than it is to integrate that. Hold up, is that continuous from -inf. to inf. HUHHH. I guess I am that tired. This week total so far, 18 hrs. of Calc. II studying. I'm getting tired.
                The Lord watches over me!

                "Stop punching down on my people!!!"

                - D. Chappelle

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